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CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q213-Q218):

NEW QUESTION # 213
In the last hour, a high volume of failed RDP authentication attempts has been logged on a critical server. All of the authentication attempts originated from the same remote IP address and made use of a single valid domain user account. Which of the following mitigating controls would be most effective to reduce the rate of success of this brute-force attack? (Select two).

A. Increase the granularity of log-on event auditing on all devices.
B. Block inbound to TCP port 3389 from untrusted remote IP addresses at the perimeter firewall.
C. Implement a firewall block for the IP address of the remote system.
D. Configure user account lockout after a limited number of failed attempts.
E. Enable host firewall rules to block all outbound traffic to TCP port 3389.
F. Install a third-party remote access tool and disable RDP on all devices.

Answer: B,D

Explanation:
To mitigate brute-force attacks, implementing an account lockout policy (C) prevents continuous attempts by locking the account after a set number of failed logins. Blocking inbound connections on TCP port 3389 (RDP) from untrusted IP addresses (F) limits access, reducing the attack surface. According to CompTIA Security+, these controls effectively prevent unauthorized access. While blocking specific IPs (D) or disabling RDP (E) can also help, the lockout and firewall rules provide broader, proactive protection against this attack type.

NEW QUESTION # 214
A security analyst has identified a new malware file that has impacted the organization. The malware is polymorphic and has built-in conditional triggers that require a connection to the internet. The CPU has an idle process of at least 70%. Which of the following best describes how the security analyst can effectively review the malware without compromising the organization's network?

A. Utilize an RDP session on an unused workstation to evaluate the malware.
B. Subscribe to an online service to create a sandbox environment.
C. Disconnect and utilize an existing infected asset off the network.
D. Create a virtual host for testing on the security analyst workstation.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 215
A virtual web server in a server pool was infected with malware after an analyst used the internet to research a system issue. After the server was rebuilt and added back into the server pool, users reported issues with the website, indicating the site could not be trusted. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the server issue?

A. The server was supporting weak TLS protocols for client connections.
B. The malware infected all the web servers in the pool.
C. The digital certificate on the web server was self-signed.
D. The server was configured to use SSL to securely transmit data.

Answer: C

Explanation:
A digital certificate is a document that contains the public key and identity information of a web server, and is signed by a trusted third-party authority called a certificate authority (CA). A digital certificate allows the web server to establish a secure connection with the clients using the HTTPS protocol, and also verifies the authenticity of the web server. A self-signed certificate is a digital certificate that is not signed by a CA, but by the web server itself. A self-signed certificate can cause issues with the website, as it may not be trusted by the clients or their browsers.
Clients may receive warnings or errors when trying to access the website, indicating that the site could not be trusted or that the connection is not secure.

NEW QUESTION # 216
A Chief Information Security Officer wants to map all the attack vectors that the company faces each day.
Which of the following recommendations should the company align their security controls around?

A. MITRE ATT&CK
B. OSSTMM
C. OWASP
D. Diamond Model Of Intrusion Analysis

Answer: A

Explanation:
The correct answer is D. MITRE ATT&CK.
MITRE ATT&CK is a framework that maps the tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) of various threat actors and groups, based on real-world observations and data. MITRE ATT&CK can help a Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) to map all the attack vectors that the company faces each day, as well as to align their security controls around the most relevant and prevalent threats. MITRE ATT&CK can also help the CISO to assess the effectiveness and maturity of their security posture, as well as to identify and prioritize the gaps and improvements .
The other options are not the best recommendations for mapping all the attack vectors that the company faces each day. OSSTMM (Open Source Security Testing Methodology Manual) (A) is a methodology that provides guidelines and best practices for conducting security testing and auditing, but it does not map the TTPs of threat actors or groups. Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis (B) is a model that analyzes the relationships and interactions between four elements of an intrusion: adversary, capability, infrastructure, and victim. The Diamond Model can help understand the characteristics and context of an intrusion, but it does not map the TTPs of threat actors or groups. OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project) is a project that provides resources and tools for improving the security of web applications, but it does not map the TTPs of threat actors or groups.

NEW QUESTION # 217
An incident response analyst is taking over an investigation from another analyst. The investigation has been going on for the past few days. Which of the following steps is most important during the transition between the two analysts?

A. Identify and discuss the lessons learned with the prior analyst.
B. Accept all findings and continue to investigate the next item target.
C. Review the steps that the previous analyst followed.
D. Validate the root cause from the prior analyst.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 218
......

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CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q213-Q218):

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